Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
12.06.2025 02:21
There's no rule.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
How is it not psychopathic to use someone for sex, even if they agree?
You'll usually find your answer there.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
If babies could write, what questions would they ask on Quora?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
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While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.